UGC-NET Computer Science Previous Year Question Papers

 UGC-NET NOVEMBER 2017 QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION 

CBSE-NET NOVEMBER 2017 QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION 

NTA-NET NOVEMBER 2017 QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION 

Q:14 Which of the following is not true in case of Oblique Projections?
(A) Parallel projection rays are not perpendicular to the viewing plane.
(B) Parallel lines in space appear parallel on the final projected image.
(C) Used exclusively for pictorial purposes rather than formal working drawings.
(D) Projectors are always perpendicular to the plane of projection.


Answer: (D)

Explanation: 

 

(A) → Parallel projection rays are not perpendicular to the viewing plane. TRUE
(B) → Parallel lines in space appear parallel on the final projected image. TRUE
(C) → Used exclusively for pictorial purposes rather than formal working drawings. TRUE

(D) → Projectors are always perpendicular to the plane of projection. False

The projectors in oblique projection intersect the projection plane at an oblique angle to produce the projected image, as opposed to the perpendicular angle used in orthographic projection. 

So, option (D) is correct.

UGC-NET Computer Science Previous Year Question Papers

 UGC-NET NOVEMBER 2017 QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION 

CBSE-NET NOVEMBER 2017 QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION 

NTA-NET NOVEMBER 2017 QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION 

Q:11 Given two relations R1(A, B) and R2(C, D), the result of following query

Select distinct A, B
from R1, R2

is guaranteed to be same as R1 provided one of the following condition is satisfied.
(A) R1 has no duplicates and R2 is empty.
(B) R1 has no duplicates and R2 is non – empty.
(C) Both R1 and R2 have no duplicates.
(D) R2 has no duplicates and R1 is non – empty.


Answer: (B)

Explanation: Select A,B
From R1, R2 :
In this query first we will take Cartesian product of R1, R2 (R2 must be non empty)for this 0- R2 then select distinct A,B from Cartesian product of R1, R2 (for A,B being distinct there should not any duplicate A,B).
And
Select A,B
From R2
For this query A,B → No duplicate A,B.
By combining condition for both query we will get the right condition.
So, option (B) is correct.

UGC-NET Computer Science Previous Year Question Papers

 UGC-NET NOVEMBER 2017 QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION 

CBSE-NET NOVEMBER 2017 QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION 

NTA-NET NOVEMBER 2017 QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION 

Question 65 GATE-CS-2014-(Set-1) | Question 65 2014 GATE

Q:7 Consider the following four schedules due to three transactions (indicated by the subscript) using read and write on a data item X, denoted by r(X) and w(X) respectively. Which one of them is conflict serializable ?

S1: r1(X); r2(X); w1(X); r3(X); w2(X)

S2: r2(X); r1(X); w2(X); r3(X); w1(X)

S3: r3(X); r2(X); r1(X); w2(X); w1(X)

S4: r2(X); w2(X); r3(X); r1(X); w1(X)

(A) S1
(B) S2
(C) S3
(D) S4


Answer: (D)

Explanation: We can draw precedence graph for each schedule and for conflict serializability graph must not contain cycle.

So, option (D) is correct.

UGC-NET Computer Science Previous Year Question Papers

 UGC-NET NOVEMBER 2017 QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION 

CBSE-NET NOVEMBER 2017 QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION 

NTA-NET NOVEMBER 2017 QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION 

Q:6 A micro-instruction format has micro-ops field which is divided into three subfields F1, F2, F3 each having seven distinct micro-operations, condition field CD for four status bits, branch field BR having four options used in conjunction with address field ADF. The address space is of 128 memory locations. The size of micro-instruction is:

(A) 17
(B) 20
(C) 24
(D) 32


Answer: (B)

Explanation: Microprocessor instruction format, which is divided into three subfields F1, F2, F3 each having seven distinct micro-operations, condition field CD for four status bits, branch field BR having four options used in conjunction with address field ADF. The address space is of 128 memory locations.ie:

F1,F2,F3 each having seven distinct micro-operation. So, 3 bits are required for each.
Condition field have four status, it needs 2 bits for four different condition.
Branch field have four option so,it needs 2 bits for four option.
Now there are 128 different memory location, So, there 7 bits atre required for 128 diffeent location.
Instruction Field:
Total bits are 20.
So, option (B) is correct.

UGC-NET Computer Science Previous Year Question Papers

UGC-NET NOVEMBER 2017 QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION 

CBSE-NET NOVEMBER 2017 QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION 

NTA-NET NOVEMBER 2017 QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION  

Q:5 Which of the following is correct statement ?

(A) In memory – mapped I/O, the CPU can manipulate I/O data residing in interface registers that are not used to manipulate memory words.
(B) The isolated I/O method isolates memory and I/O addresses so that memory address range is not affected by interface address assignment.
(C) In asynchronous serial transfer of data the two units share a common clock.
(D) In synchronous serial transmission of data the two units have different clocks.


Answer: (B)

Explanation:

• The isolated I/O method isolates memory and I/O addresses so that memory address range is not affected by interface address assignment.
• Memory based I/O uses same address space for memory and I/O devices.
• In asynchronous serial transfer of data the two units do not share a common clock.
• In synchronous serial transfer of data the two units share a common clock.

Option (B) is correct.

UGC-NET NOVEMBER 2017 QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION 

CBSE-NET NOVEMBER 2017 QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION 

NTA-NET NOVEMBER 2017 QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION 

Q:3 In the architecture of 8085 microprocessor match the following:

(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)


Answer: (B)

Explanation:

• ALU is the arithmetic logic unit and it involves processing of input into desired output.
• Timing and control instruction are covered in instruction unit of microprocessor.
• There are some general purpose register in storage and interface unit.
• While an interrupt is a signal to the processor which required attention from processor, an interrupt is serviced on the basis of priority and need.

So, option (B) is correct.

UGC-NET JULY 2016 PAPER 1 SET-A QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION

UGC-NET JULY 2016 PAPER 1 SET-A QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION



Read the following passage carefully and answer question numbers from 11 to 16 :
In terms of labour, for decades the relatively low cost and high quality of Japanese workers
conferred considerable competitive advantage across numerous durable goods and consumerelectronics
industries (eg. Machinery, automobiles, televisions, radios). Then labour-based
advantages shifted to South Korea, then to Malaysia, Mexico and other nations. Today, China
appears to be capitalizing best on the basis of labour. Japanese firms still remain competitive in
markets for such durable goods, electronics and other products, but the labour force is no longer
sufficient for competitive advantage over manufacturers in other industrializing nations. Such
shifting of labour-based advantage is clearly not limited to manufacturing industries. Today, a huge
number of IT and service jobs are moving from Europe and North America to India, Singapore, and
like countries with relatively well-educated, low-cost workforces possessing technical skills.
However, as educational levels and technical skills continue to rise in other countries, India,
Singapore, and like nations enjoying labour-based competitive advantage today are likely to find
such advantage cannot be sustained through emergence of new competitors.
In terms of capital, for centuries the days of gold coins and later even paper money restricted
financial flows. Subsequently regional concentrations were formed where large banks, industries
and markets coalesced. But today capital flows internationally at rapid speed. Global commerce no
longer requires regional interactions among business players. Regional capital concentrations in
places such as New York, London and Tokyo still persist, of course, but the capital concentrated
there is no longer sufficient for competitive advantage over other capitalists distributed worldwide.
Only if an organization is able to combine, integrate and apply its resources (eg. Land, labour,
capital, IT) in an effective manner that is not readily imitable by competitors can such an
organization enjoy competitive advantage sustainable overtime.
In a knowledge-based theory of the firm, this idea is extended to view organizational knowledge as
a resource with atleast the same level of power and importance as the traditional economic inputs.
An organization with superior knowledge can achieve competitive advantage in markets that
appreciate the application of such knowledge. Semiconductors, genetic engineering,
pharmaceuticals, software, military warfare, and like knowledge-intensive competitive arenas
provide both time-proven and current examples. Consider semiconductors (e.g. computer chips),
which are made principally of sand and common metals. These ubiquitous and powerful electronic
devices are designed within common office buildings, using commercially available tools, and
fabricated within factories in many industrialized nations. Hence, land is not the key competitive
resource in the semiconductor industry.
Based on the passage answer the following questions :



Q:: 11 Which country enjoyed competitive advantages in automobile industry for decades ?

(1) South Korea                                (2) Japan
(3) Mexico                                        (4) Malaysia

Answer:: (2)

Q:: 12 Why labour-based competitive advantages of India and Singapore cannot be sustained in IT and service sectors ?

(1) Due to diminishing levels of skill.

(2) Due to capital-intensive technology making inroads.

(3) Because of new competitors.

(4) Because of shifting of labour-based advantage in manufacturing industries.

Answer:: (3)

Q:: 13 How can an organisation enjoy competitive advantage sustainable overtime ?

(1) Through regional capital flows.

(2) Through regional interactions among business players.

(3) By making large banks, industries and markets coalesced.

(4) By effective use of various instrumentalities.

Answer:: (4)

Q:: 14 What is required to ensure competitive advantages in specific markets ?

(1) Access to capital                                 (2) Common office buildings

(3) Superior knowledge                            (4) Common metals

Answer:: (3)

Q:: 15 The passage also mentions about the trend of

(1) Global financial flow

(2) Absence of competition in manufacturing industry

(3) Regionalisation of capitalists

(4) Organizational incompatibility

Answer:: (1)

Q:: 16 What does the author lay stress on in the passage ?

(1) International commerce                            (2) Labour-Intensive industries

(3) Capital resource management                   (4) Knowledge-driven competitive advantage


Answer:: (4)

Q:: 17 Imagine you are working in an educational institution where people are of equal status.
Which method of communication is best suited and normally employed in such a context ?

(1) Horizontal communication

(2) Vertical communication

(3) Corporate communication

(4) Cross communication

Answer:: (1)

Q:: 18 Identify the important element a teacher has to take cognizance of while addressing
students in a classroom.

(1) Avoidance of proximity

(2) Voice modulation

(3) Repetitive pause

(4) Fixed posture

Answer:: (2)

Q:: 19 What are the barriers to effective communication ?

(1) Moralising, being judgemental and comments of consolation.

(2) Dialogue, summary and self-review.

(3) Use of simple words, cool reaction and defensive attitude.

(4) Personal statements, eye contact and simple narration.

Answer:: (1)

Q:: 20 The choice of communication partners is influenced by factors of

(1) Proximity, utility, loneliness

(2) Utility, secrecy, dissonance

(3) Secrecy, dissonance, deception

(4) Dissimilarity, dissonance, deviance

Answer:: (1)








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UGC-NET JULY 2016 PAPER 1 QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION

UGC-NET JULY 2016 PAPER 1 SET-A QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION




Q:: 1. Select the alternative which consists of positive factors contributing to effectiveness of
 teaching :

List of factors :

(a) Teacher’s knowledge of the subject.

(b) Teacher’s socio-economic background.

(c) Communication skill of the teacher.

(d) Teacher’s ability to please the students.

(e) Teacher’s personal contact with students.

(f) Teacher’s competence in managing and monitoring the classroom transactions.

Codes :

(1) (b), (c) and (d) (2) (c), (d) and (f)

(3) (b), (d) and (e) (4) (a), (c) and (f)

Answer::(4)

Q::2 The use of teaching aids is justified on the grounds of

(1) attracting students’ attention in the class room.

(2) minimising indiscipline problems in the classroom.

(3) optimising learning outcomes of students.

(4) effective engagement of students in learning tasks.
Answer::(3)

Q:: 3 Assertion (A) :

         The purpose of higher education is to promote critical and creative
         thinking abilities among students.
 

         Reason (R) :

         These abilities ensure job placements.

Choose the correct answer from the following code :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Answer::(2)

Q:: 4 Match the items of the first set with that of the second set in respect of evaluation system.

Choose the correct code :

Set – I                                                                    Set – II

a. Formative evaluation                                         i. Evaluating cognitive and co-cognitive
                                                                                aspects with regularity

b. Summative evaluation                                       ii. Tests and their interpretations based on a
                                                                                 group and certain yardsticks

c. Continuous and comprehensive evaluation        iii. Grading the final learning outcomes

d. Norm and criterion referenced tests                  iv. Quizzes and discussions

Codes :

      a b c d

(1) iv iii i ii

(2) i ii iii iv

(3) iii iv ii i

(4) i iii iv ii

Answer::(1)

Q:: 5 A researcher intends to explore the effect of possible factors for the organization of effective mid-day meal interventions. Which research method will be most appropriate for this study ?

(1) Historical method                            (2) Descriptive survey method

(3) Experimental method                      (4) Ex-post-facto method

Answer::(4)

Q::6 Which of the following is an initial mandatory requirement for pursuing research ?

(1) Developing a research design

(2) Formulating a research question

(3) Deciding about the data analysis procedure

(4) Formulating a research hypothesis

Answer::(2)

Q:: 7 The format of thesis writing is the same as in

(1) preparation of a research paper/article

(2) writing of seminar presentation

(3) a research dissertation

(4) presenting a workshop / conference paper

Answer::(3)

Q:: 8 In qualitative research paradigm, which of the following features may be considered critical ?

(1) Data collection with standardised research tools.

(2) Sampling design with probability sample techniques.

(3) Data collection with bottom-up empirical evidences.

(4) Data gathering to take place with top-down systematic evidences.

Answer::(3)

Q:: 9 From the following list of statements identify the set which has negative implications for
‘research ethics’ :

(i) A researcher critically looks at the findings of another research.

(ii) Related studies are cited without proper references.

(iii) Research findings are made the basis for policy making.

(iv) Conduct of practitioner is screened in terms of reported research evidences.

(v) A research study is replicated with a view to verify the evidences from other researches.

(vi) Both policy making and policy implementing processes are regulated in terms of
preliminary studies.

Codes :

(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)                                      (2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(3) (ii), (iv) and (vi)                                     (4) (i), (iii) and (v)

Answer::(3)

Q:: 10 In a research on the effect of child-rearing practices on stress-proneness of children in completing school projects, the hypothesis formulated is that ‘child rearing practices do influence stress-proneness’. At the data-analysis stage a null hypothesis is advanced to
find out the tenability of research hypothesis. On the basis of the evidence available, the
null hypothesis is rejected at 0.01 level of significance. What decision may be warranted
in respect of the research hypothesis ?

(1) The research hypothesis will also be rejected.

(2) The research hypothesis will be accepted.

(3) Both the research hypothesis and the null hypothesis will be rejected.

(4) No decision can be taken in respect of the research hypothesis.

Answer::(2)

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UGC-NET JULY 2016 PAPER 3 QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION

UGC-NET JULY 2016 PAPER 3 QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION


Q:: 61 The region of feasible solution of a linear programming problem has a _____ property in
geometry, provided the feasible solution of the problem exists.

(1) concavity                                          (2) convexity

(3) quadratic                                          (4) polyhedron

Answer:: (2)

Q:: 62 Consider the following statements :

(a) Revised simplex method requires lesser computations than the simplex method.

(b) Revised simplex method automatically generates the inverse of the current basis
matrix.

(c) Less number of entries are needed in each table of revised simplex method than
usual simplex method.

Which of these statements are correct ?

(1) (a) and (b) only                                   (2) (a) and (c) only

(3) (b) and (c) only                                   (4) (a), (b) and (c)

Answer:: (4)

63. The following transportation problem :
                      A         B          C              Supply
  I                  50        30         220               1
 II                 90        45         170               3
III                250      200        50                 4
Demand        4           2           2

has a solution
         A     B      C
I       1
II     3       0
III            2       2
The above solution of a given transportation problem is

(1) infeasible solution                                       (2) optimum solution

(3) non-optimum solution                                (4) unbounded solution

Answer:: (2)

64. Let R and S be two fuzzy relations defined as :

Then, the resulting relation, T, which relates elements of universe x to elements of
universe z using max-min composition is given by

Answer:: (3)

Q:: 65 Compute the value of adding the following two fuzzy integers :

A = {(0.3, 1), (0.6, 2), (1, 3), (0.7, 4), (0.2, 5)}

B = {(0.5, 11), (1, 12), (0.5, 13)}

Where fuzzy addition is defined as

μA+B (z) = max
x + y = z (min (μA(x), μB(x)))
Then, f (A + B) is equal to

(1) {(0.5, 12), (0.6, 13), (1, 14), (0.7, 15), (0.7, 16), (1, 17), (1, 18)}

(2) {(0.5, 12), (0.6, 13), (1, 14), (1, 15), (1, 16), (1, 17), (1, 18)}

(3) {(0.3, 12), (0.5, 13), (0.5, 14), (1, 15), (0.7, 16), (0.5, 17), (0.2, 18)}

(4) {(0.3, 12), (0.5, 13), (0.6, 14), (1, 15), (0.7, 16), (0.5, 17), (0.2, 18)}

Answer:: (4)

Q:: 66 A perceptron has input weights W1 = – 3.9 and W2 = 1.1 with threshold value T = 0.3.
What output does it give for the input x1 = 1.3 and x2 = 2.2 ?

(1) – 2.65                                             (2) – 2.30

(3) 0                                                    (4) 1

Answer:: (3)

Q:: 67 What is the function of following UNIX command ?
           
           WC – l < a > b &

(1) It runs the word count program to count the number of lines in its input, a, writing
the result to b, as a foreground process.

(2) It runs the word count program to count the number of lines in its input, a, writing
the result to b, but does it in the background.

(3) It counts the errors during the execution of a process, a, and puts the result in
process b.

(4) It copies the ‘l’ numbers of lines of program from file, a, and stores in file b.

Answer:: (2)

Q:: 68 Which of the following statement is not correct with reference to cron daemon in UNIX O.S. ?

(1) The cron daemon is the standard tool for running commands on a pre-determined
schedule.

(2) It starts when the system boots and runs as long as the system is up.

(3) Cron reads configuration files that contain list of command lines and the times at
which they invoked.

(4) Crontab for individual users are not stored.

Answer:: (4)

Q:: 69 In Unix, files can be protected by assigning each one a 9-bit mode called rights bits. Now, consider the following two statements:

I. A mode of 641 (octal) means that the owner can read and write the file, other
members of the owner’s group can read it, and users can execute only.

II. A mode of 100 (octal) allows the owner to execute the file, but prohibits all other
access.

Which of the following options is correct with reference to above statements ?

(1) Only I is correct. (2) Only II is correct.

(3) Both I and II are correct. (4) Both I and II are incorrect.

Answer:: (3)

70. Consider the statement,

“Either – 2 ≤ x ≤ – 1 or 1 ≤ x ≤2”.

The negation of this statement is

(1) x < – 2 or 2 < x or – 1 < x < 1                   (2) x < – 2 or 2 < x

(3) – 1 < x < 1                                               (4) x ≤ – 2 or 2 < x or – 1 < x < 1

Answer:: (1)

71. Which of the following is characteristic of an MIS ?

(1) Provides guidance in identifying problems, finding and evaluating alternative
solutions, and selecting or comparing alternatives.

(2) Draws on diverse yet predictable data resources to aggregate and summarize data.

(3) High volume, data capture focus.

(4) Has as its goal the efficiency of data movement and processing and interfacing
different TPS.

Answer:: (2)

72. How does randomized hill-climbing choose the next move each time ?

(1) It generates a random move from the moveset, and accepts this move.

(2) It generates a random move from the whole state space, and accepts this move.

(3) It generates a random move from the moveset, and accepts this move only if this
     move improves the evaluation function.

(4) It generates a random move from the whole state space, and accepts this move only
     if this move improves the evaluation function.

Answer:: (3)

Q:: 73 Consider the following game tree in which root is a maximizing node and children are
visited left to right. What nodes will be pruned by the alpha-beta pruning ?

(1) I                                         (2) HI
(3) CHI                                    (4) GHI

Answer:: (2)

Q:: 74 Consider a 3-puzzle where, like in the usual 8-puzzle game, a tile can only move to an adjacent empty space. Given the initial state

 which of the following state cannot be reached ?

Answer:: (3)


Q:: 75 A software program that infers and manipulates existing knowledge in order to generate
new knowledge is known as :

(1) Data dictionary                                 (2) Reference mechanism

(3) Inference engine                                (4) Control strategy


Answer:: (3)

                                                    <<<   1   2   3   4   5   6   7   >>>

UGC-NET JULY 2016 PAPER 3 QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION

UGC-NET JULY 2016 PAPER 3 QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION


Q:: 51 Which of the following information about the UNIX file system is not correct ?

(1) Super block contains the number of i-nodes, the number of disk blocks, and the start
of the list of free disk blocks.

(2) An i-node contains accounting information as well as enough information to locate
all the disk blocks that holds the file’s data.

(3) Each i-node is 256-bytes long.

(4) All the files and directories are stored in data blocks.

Answer:: (3)

Q:: 52 Which of the following option with reference to UNIX operating system is not correct ?

(1) INT signal is sent by the terminal driver when one types <Control-C> and it is a
request to terminate the current operation.

(2) TERM is a request to terminate execution completely. The receiving process will
clean up its state and exit.

(3) QUIT is similar to TERM, except that it defaults to producing a core dump if not
caught.

(4) KILL is a blockable signal.

Answer:: (4)

Q:: 53 A multicomputer with 256 CPUs is organized as 16 × 16 grid. What is the worst case
delay (in hops) that a message might have to take ?

(1) 16                                     (2) 15
(3) 32                                     (4) 30

Answer:: (4)

Q:: 54 Suppose that the time to do a null remote procedure call (RPC) (i.e. 0 data bytes) is
1.0 msec, with an additional 1.5 msec for every 1K of data. How long does it take to read
32 K from the file server as 32 1K RPCs ?

(1) 49 msec                             (2) 80 msec

(3) 48 msec                             (4) 100 msec

Answer:: (2)

Q:: 55 Let L be the language generated by regular expression 0*10* and accepted by the
deterministic finite automata M. Consider the relation RM defined by M. As all states are
reachable from the start state, RM has _____ equivalence classes.

(1) 2                                   (2) 4

(3) 5                                   (4) 6

Answer:: (4)

Q:: 56 Let L = {0n1n|n ≥ 0} be a context free language.

Which of the following is correct ?

(1) ~L is context free and Lk is not context free for any k ≥ 1.

(2) ~L is not context free and Lk is context free for any k ≥ 1.

(3) Both ~L and Lk is for any k ≥ 1 are context free.

(4) Both ~L and Lk is for any k ≥ 1 are not context free.

Answer:: (3)

Q:: 57 Given a Turing Machine

M = ({q0, q1, q2, q3}, {a, b}, {a, b, B}, δ, B, {q3})

Where δ is a transition function defined as

δ(q0, a) = (q1, a, R)
δ(q1, b) = (q2, b, R)
δ(q2, a) = (q2, a, R)
δ(q2, b) = (q3, b, R)

The language L(M) accepted by the Turing Machine is given as :

(1) aa*b                                      (2) abab

(3) aba*b                                    (4) aba*

Answer:: (3)

Q:: 58 Consider a discrete memoryless channel and assume that H(x) is the amount of
information per symbol at the input of the channel; H(y) is the amount of information per
symbol at the output of the channel; H(x|y) is the amount of uncertainty remaining on x
knowing y; and I (x; y) is the information transmission.
Which of the following does not define the channel capacity of a discrete memoryless
channel ?

(1) max I (x; y)                                (2) max [H(y) – H(y|x)]
     p(x)                                                  p(x)

(3) max [H(x) – H(x|y)]                    (4) max H(x|y)
     p(x)                                                  p(x)

Answer:: (4)

Q:: 59 Consider a source with symbols A, B, C, D with probabilities 1/2, 1/4, 1/8,           1/8 respectively. What is the average number of bits per symbol for the Huffman code generated from above information ?

(1) 2 bits per symbol                             (2) 1.75 bits per symbol

(3) 1.50 bits per symbol                        (4) 1.25 bits per symbol

Answer:: (2)

Q:: 60 Which of the following is used for the boundary representation of an image object ?

(1) Quad Tree                                           (2) Projections

(3) Run length coding                               (4) Chain codes

Answer:: (4)

                     
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UGC-NET JULY 2016 PAPER 3 QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION

UGC-NET JULY 2016 PAPER 3 QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION


Q:: 41 Which of the following statements is not correct ?

(1) HTML is not screen precise formatting language.

(2) HTML does not specify a logic.

(3) DHTML is used for developing highly interactive web pages.

(4) HTML is a programming language.

Answer:: (4)

Q:: 42 When one object reference variable is assigned to another object reference variable then

(1) a copy of the object is created.

(2) a copy of the reference is created.

(3) a copy of the reference is not created.

(4) it is illegal to assign one object reference variable to another object reference
variable.

Answer:: (2)

Q:: 43 A server crashes on the average once in 30 days, that is, the Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) is 30 days. When this happens, it takes 12 hours to reboot it, that is, the Mean Time to Repair (MTTR) is 12 hours. The availability of server with these reliability data
values is approximately :

(1) 96.3%                                              (2) 97.3%

(3) 98.3%                                              (4) 99.3%

Answer:: (3)

Q:: 44 Match the software maintenance activities in List – I to its meaning in List – II.
    List – I                                      List – II

I. Corrective                             (a) Concerned with performing activities to reduce the software
                                                     complexity thereby improving program understandability
                                                     and increasing software maintainability.

II. Adaptive                             (b) Concerned with fixing errors that are observed when the
                                                     Software is in use.

III. Perfective                          (c) Concerned with the change in the software that takes place
                                                     to make the software adaptable to new environment (both
                                                     hardware and software).

IV. Preventive                          (d) Concerned with the change in the software that takes place to
                                                     make the software adaptable to changing user requirements.


Codes :
      I    II  III IV

(1) (b) (d) (c) (a)

(2) (b) (c) (d) (a)

(3) (c) (b) (d) (a)

(4) (a) (d) (b) (c)

Answer:: (2)

Q:: 45 Match each application/software design concept in List – I to its definition in List – II.
    List – I                                           List – II

I. Coupling                                    (a) Easy to visually inspect the design of the software and
                                                           understand its purpose.

II. Cohesion                                  (b) Easy to add functionality to a software without having to
                                                           redesign it.

III. Scalable                                  (c) Focus of a code upon a single goal.

IV. Readable                                 (d) Reliance of a code module upon other code modules.

Codes :

       I   II  III IV

(1) (b) (a) (d) (c)

(2) (c) (d) (a) (b)

(3) (d) (c) (b) (a)

(4) (d) (a) (c) (b)

Answer:: (3)

Q:: 46 Software safety is quality assurance activity that focuses on hazards that

(1) affect the reliability of a software component.

(2) may cause an entire system to fail.

(3) may result from user input errors.

(4) prevent profitable marketing of the final product.

Answer:: (2)

Q:: 47 Which of the following sets represent five stages defined by Capability Maturity Model
          (CMM) in increasing order of maturity ?

(1) Initial, Defined, Repeatable, Managed, Optimized.

(2) Initial, Repeatable, Defined, Managed, Optimized.

(3) Initial, Defined, Managed, Repeatable, Optimized.

(4) Initial, Repeatable, Managed, Defined, Optimized.

Answer:: (2)

Q:: 48 The number of function points of a proposed system is calculated as 500. Suppose that the system is planned to be developed in Java and the LOC/FP ratio of Java is 50. Estimate
the effort (E) required to complete the project using the effort formula of basic COCOMO
given below :

E = a(KLOC)b
Assume that the values of a and b are 2.5 and 1.0 respectively.

(1) 25 person months                                              (2) 75 person months

(3) 62.5 person months                                           (4) 72.5 person months

Answer:: (3)

Q:: 49 In UNIX, processes that have finished execution but have not yet had their status collected are known as _________.

(1) Sleeping processes                                       (2) Stopped processes

(3) Zombie processes                                        (4) Orphan processes

Answer:: (3)

Q:: 50 In Unix operating system, when a process creates a new process using the fork () system
call, which of the following state is shared between the parent process and child process ?

(1) Heap                                                         (2) Stack

(3) Shared memory segments                          (4) Both Heap and Stack

Answer:: (3)


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UGC-NET JULY 2016 PAPER 3 QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION

UGC-NET JULY 2016 PAPER 3 QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION



Q:: 31 The number of different binary trees with 6 nodes is ______.

(1) 6                                                  (2) 42

(3) 132                                              (4) 256

Answer:: (3)

Q:: 32 Let A[1…n] be an array of n distinct numbers. If i < j and A[i] > A[j], then the pair (i, j) is
called an inversion of A. What is the expected number of inversions in any permutation on
n elements ?

(1) θ(n)                                          (2) θ(lgn)

(3) θ(nlgn)                                     (4) θ(n²)

Answer:: (4)

Q:: 33 Which one of the following array represents a binary max-heap ?

(1) [26, 13, 17, 14, 11, 9, 15]                           (2) [26, 15, 14, 17, 11, 9, 13]

(3) [26, 15, 17, 14, 11, 9, 13]                           (4) [26, 15, 13, 14, 11, 9, 17]

Answer:: (3)

Q:: 34 Match the following :

(a) Huffman codes                                                   (i) O(n2)

(b) Optimal polygon triangulation                          (ii) θ(n3)

(c) Activity selection problem                                 (iii) O(nlgn)

(d) Quicksort                                                         (iv) θ(n)

Codes :

     (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(2) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)

(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

Answer:: (3)

Q:: 35 Suppose that we have numbers between 1 and 1,000 in a binary search tree and want to
search for the number 364. Which of the following sequences could not be the sequence of
nodes examined ?

(1) 925, 221, 912, 245, 899, 259, 363, 364

(2) 3, 400, 388, 220, 267, 383, 382, 279, 364

(3) 926, 203, 912, 241, 913, 246, 364

(4) 3, 253, 402, 399, 331, 345, 398, 364

Answer:: (3)

Q:: 36 A triangulation of a polygon is a set of T chords that divide the polygon into disjoint
triangles. Every triangulation of n-vertex convex polygon has _____ chords and divides
the polygon into _____ triangles.

(1) n – 2, n – 1                                     (2) n – 3, n – 2

(3) n – 1, n                                           (4) n – 2, n – 2

Answer:: (2)

Q:: 37 Implicit return type of a class constructor is :

(1) not of class type itself                                (2) class type itself

(3) a destructor of class type                           (4) a destructor not of class type

Answer:: (2)

Q:: 38 It is possible to define a class within a class termed as nested class. There are _____ types of nested classes.

(1) 2                                                       (2) 3

(3) 4                                                       (4) 5

Answer:: (1)

Q:: 39 Which of the following statements is correct ?

(1) Aggregation is a strong type of association between two classes with full ownership.

(2) Aggregation is a strong type of association between two classes with partial
ownership.

(3) Aggregation is a weak type of association between two classes with partial
ownership.

(4) Aggregation is a weak type of association between two classes with full ownership.

Answer:: (3)

40. Which of the following statements is correct ?

(1) Every class containing abstract method must not be declared abstract.

(2) Abstract class cannot be directly initiated with ‘new’ operator.

(3) Abstract class cannot be initiated.

(4) Abstract class contains definition of implementation.

Answer:: (2&3)


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UGC-NET JULY 2016 PAPER 3 QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION

UGC-NET JULY 2016 PAPER 3 QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION

Q:: 21 Which of the following is false regarding the evaluation of computer programming
languages ?

(1) Application oriented features                              (2) Efficiency and Readability

(3) Software development                                         (4) Hardware maintenance cost

Answer:: (4)

Q:: 22 The symmetric difference of two sets S1 and S2 is defined as

S1 @ S2 = {x|x ∈ S1 or x ∈ S2, but x is not in both S1 and S2}

The nor of two languages is defined as

nor (L1, L2) = {w|w ∈| L1 and w ∈| L2}.

Which of the following is correct ?

(1) The family of regular languages is closed under symmetric difference but not closed under nor.

(2) The family of regular languages is closed under nor but not closed under symmetric difference.

(3) The family of regular languages are closed under both symmetric difference and nor.

(4) The family of regular languages are not closed under both symmetric difference and nor.

Answer:: (3)

Q:: 23 The regular expression for the complement of the language L = {anbm|n ≥ 4, m ≤ 3} is :

(1) (λ + a + aa + aaa) b* + a* bbbb* + (a + b)* ba(a + b)*

(2) (λ + a + aa + aaa) b* + a* bbbbb* + (a + b)* ab(a + b)*

(3) (λ + a + aa + aaa) + a* bbbbb* + (a + b)* ab(a + b)*

(4) (λ + a + aa + aaa)b* + a* bbbbb* + (a + b)* ba(a + b)*

Answer:: (4)

Q:: 24 Consider the following two languages :

L1 = {0i1j| gcd (i, j) = 1}

L2 is any subset of 0*.

Which of the following is correct ?

(1) L1 is regular and L*2 is not regular

(2) L1 is not regular and L*2 is regular

(3) Both L1 and L*2 are regular languages

(4) Both L1 and L*2 are not regular languages

Answer:: (2)

25. If link transmits 4000 frames per second and each slot has 8 bits, the transmission rate of
circuit of this TDM is ______.

(1) 64 Kbps                   (2) 32 MbpS

(3) 32 Kbps                   (4) 64 MbpS

Answer:: (3)

Q:: 26 Given the following statements :

(A) Frequency Division Multiplexing is a technique that can be applied when the
bandwidth of a link is greater than combined bandwidth of signals to be transmitted.

(B) Wavelength Division Multiplexing (WDM) is an analog multiplexing Technique to
combine optical signals.

(C) WDM is a Digital Multiplexing Technique.

(D) TDM is a Digital Multiplexing Technique.

Which of the following is correct ?

(1) (A), (B), (C) and (D) are true.

(2) (A), (B), (C) and (D) are false.

(3) (A), (B) and (D) are false; (C) is true.

(4) (A), (B) and (D) are True; (C) is false.

Answer:: (4)

Q:: 27 A pure ALOHA Network transmits 200 bit frames using a shared channel with 200 Kbps bandwidth. If the system (all stations put together) produces 500 frames per second, then
the throughput of the system is ______.
(1) 0.384                                            (2) 0.184
(3) 0.286                                            (4) 0.586

Answer:: (2)

Q:: 28 Match the following :

(a) Line coding                      (i) A technique to change analog signal to digital data.

(b) Block coding                    (ii) Provides synchronization without increasing number of bits.

(c) Scrambling                      (iii) Process of converting digital data to digital signal.

(d) Pulse code modulation     (iv) Provides redundancy to ensure synchronization and inherits error detection.

Codes :
      (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

Answer:: (2)

Q:: 29 Assume that we need to download text documents at the rate of 100 pages per minute. A
page is an average of 24 lines with 80 characters in each line and each character requires
8 bits. Then the required bit rate of the channel is _____.
(1) 1.636 Kbps                                  (2) 1.636 Mbps

(3) 3.272 Mbps                                 (4) 3.272 Kbps

Answer:: Marks to All

Q:: 30 Encrypt the plain text Message “EXTRANET” using Transposition cipher technique with the following key :
                                      3 5 2 1 4 (Cipher text)
                                      1 2 3 4 5 (Plain text)

Using ‘Z’ as bogus character.

(1) TAXERTZENZ                          (2) EXTRANETZZ

(3) EZXZTRZANZET                    (4) EXTZRANZETZ

Answer:: (1)

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